Why Such Differences in Verses Between Bible Translations

To achieve the "one-world order" which many feel must occur in order for the "Antichrist" to take over the world in the final "end times", it would be necessary for integrated administrative organization of the worldwide church and fundamental Christian doctrine to become so diluted that all other "belief systems" could exist reasonably compatibly without causing serious belief conflict. And, of course, God would have to allow it (and prophetic biblical passages indicate that He will allow it). What qualifications or markers [check it out] might serve to help one find the best Bible version to trust? See what you think of the following examples of Bible version differences...is there potential impact on doctrine?...are they significant?...does it bother you?...why so different?:

bulletas to "The Lord's Prayer"................... Matthew 6:9-13...(and Luke 11:2-4).
bulletas to The Word of God......................Psalm 12:6-7.
bulletas to Satan/the devil.......................................Luke 4:8.
bulletas to Paul's rebuke of idol worshippers..................Acts 17:22-29.
bulletas to copies of Scriptural "autographs" actually being Scripture II Timothy 3:15-16.
bulletas to Jesus actually being the child/son of God...........Acts 4:17.
bulletas to whether Rev. 13:1 "And he/I..." refers to the Dragon or John.

[a scrolling graphic of many comparisons]

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(posted 23 Oct. 1999; latest adjustment 8/8/07)